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The right to refuse service?! (COURTS, LAWYERS & LITIGATION)

Tue, 11 Feb 2003 02:30:00 GMT

What is the name of your state? California. Multi-parter, sorry. I owned 87 1/2% of a bridge club & the now-ex-girlfriend owned 12 1/2%. When we split up, I gave her my share in exchange for lifetime free plays. Now, as sole owner, she told me she wants to bar me because I'm playing in a tournament with a woman she hates (I'm not making this up). If the free plays were the consideration for the transfer of the club, can she arbitrarily bar me? Can I sue for the $7/session I'll now have to pay at other clubs (x 3 games a week x 52 weeks a year, etc etc)? The nationwide body that sanctions games has regulations about permissible reasons for barring a player. If she fabricates a reason for barring me, is it legal for me to tape record her on the phone stating her real reason? Is such a taped conversation, if legal, allowable in court in CA? LOL Trying to be brief, but I know this one is weird. ok, that's a good start.

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  • Thu, 13 Feb 2003 15:23:00 GMT(1)
  • I am not an attorney but you will probably need to give a little more information to get feedback on this one. Did you sign a contract when the shares changed ownership? What kind of agreement was it? Verbal? Written? What kind of ownership papers did you have to sign over? Instead of the personal information we actually need hard information of what you have to work with.
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